By what mechanics does one person or entity own multiple homes while many of the masses have none? This whole notion is just capitalism. The capitalist holds the ownership claim, as well as the initial capital to create the house, but you have to examine the conditions from which they have the ownership claim in the first place, as well as all the conditions that went into the accumulation of capital that they have for the house in the first place. The idea that we could not possibly create houses without the capitalist to pay for them is entirely backwards - the capital in the first place comes from the exploitation of the working class, which they use to acquire more assets of exploitation to then acquire more capital. It is the capitalists who have no income without the tenants to extract from. The capitalists did not do the labour to mine the resources, they did not do the labour to build the house. They just hold the ownership claim and use that ownership claim to extract wealth. If you delete the landlord from the equation, houses do not cease to exist, and the process of producing houses does not need to materially change or stop. Whatever 'repayment' that tenants could provide for the resourcers or labourers could go directly from tenant to labourer with no landlord in the middle. No the capitalists do not need to be 'repaid' for ownership extractions, they need to be brought to justice for them.

Marxist-Leninist, Rouge Philosopher. Dialectical Materialist. Communism’s top salesperson.

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